In Matthew, Jesus declares, “Whoever is not with me is against me.” In Mark, he says,“Whoever is not against us is for us.” Did he say both things? Could he
mean both things? How can both be true at once? Or is it possible that
one of the Gospel writers got things switched around?

Autor: Bart D. Ehrman

In Matthew, Jesus declares, “Whoever is not with me is against me.” In Mark, he says,“Whoever is not against us is for us.” Did he say both things? Could he<br />mean both things? How can both be true at once? Or is it possible that<br />one of the Gospel writers got things switched around? - Bart D. Ehrman


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